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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 12:15

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Riddle: How do budget cuts, DEI hires, and empty reservoirs, turn the bluest, most Democrat city Red?

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.